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  Symmetry, gauge, and projective symmetry group (PSG)?

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My following questions come from the understanding of the relations between the PSGs for two gauge-equivalent mean-field (MF) Hamiltonians (or MF ansatz). Considering the Schwinger-fermion (fσ) MF approach to spin-liquid phases of spin-1/2 system. Let H and H be two SU(2) gauge-equivalent MF Hamiltonians, i.e., H=RHR1, where the unitary operator R represents an SU(2) gauge rotation generated by J=12ψτψ with ψ=(f,f)T.

Now, if GUUPSG(H), then simple calculation shows that RGUUR1PSG(H), where U represents a symmetry operator and GU is the gauge operator associated with U. But we are used to the combined form of a symmetry operator followed by a gauge operator for an element in PSG, thus there are several ways to rewrite the expression RGUUR1 as: (1) (RGUUR1U1)U; (2) (RGU)U with U=UR1; or (3) (RGUR1)U with U=RUR1. So how to understand these expressions?

As for (1): The question is whether RGUUR1U1 is an SU(2) gauge operator? More specifically, it seems generally impossible to write UR1U1 as an gauge operator generated by J=12ψτψ. However, if we generalize the definition of SU(2) gauge operators R to those satisfying 3 properties A: Unitary; B: RψiR1=Wiψi,WiSU(2) matrices, which implies that physical spins should be gauge invariant (e.g., RSiR1=Si); and C: RP=PR=P with projection operator P, which implies that physical spin-space should be gauge invariant. Then one can show that UR1U1 indeed fulfills the above 3 properties A,B,C where U is time reversal, SU(2) spin rotation, or lattice symmetries. (Furthermore, R respects A,B,C R1 respects A,B,C; R1,R2 both respect A,B,C R1R2 respects A,B,C.) Therefore, the expression RGUUR1U1 in (1) is an SU(2) gauge operator in the sense A,B,C.

As for (2) or (3): We may ask: If U represents some symmetry (e.g., time reversal, SU(2) spin rotation, or lattice symmetries), then does UR or RU still represent the same physical symmetry? Where R is an SU(2) gauge operator (in the sense A,B,C mentioned above). One can show that U=UR or RU represents the same physical symmetry as U in the following sense: USiU1=USiU1 and Uϕ=Uϕ, where ϕ=Pϕ physical spin space. (Note that Uϕ=Uϕ is still a physical spin state due to [P,U]=[P,U]=0.) Therefore, the U and U in expressions (2) and (3) indeed represent the same physical symmetry as U.

Are my understandings correct? Thanks in advance.

A useful formula: Let GiUiPSG(H),i=1,2,...,n, then the SU(2) gauge operator GU associated with the combined symmetry U=U1U2Un has the following form GU=G1U1G2U2Gn1Un1GnU1n1U12U11 such that GUUPSG(H).

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2015-02-25 16:26 (UTC), posted by SE-user Kai Li
asked Nov 3, 2014 in Theoretical Physics by Kai Li (980 points) [ no revision ]
Another simple formula: If GUUPSG(H), then GU1=U1G1UU such that GU1U1PSG(H).

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2015-02-25 16:26 (UTC), posted by SE-user Kai Li

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