My following questions come from the understanding of the relations between the PSGs for two gauge-equivalent mean-field (MF) Hamiltonians (or MF ansatz). Considering the Schwinger-fermion (fσ) MF approach to spin-liquid phases of spin-1/2 system. Let H and H′ be two SU(2) gauge-equivalent MF Hamiltonians, i.e., H′=RHR−1, where the unitary operator R represents an SU(2) gauge rotation generated by J=12ψ†τψ with ψ=(f↑,f†↓)T.
Now, if GUU∈PSG(H), then simple calculation shows that RGUUR−1∈PSG(H′), where U represents a symmetry operator and GU is the gauge operator associated with U. But we are used to the combined form of a symmetry operator followed by a gauge operator for an element in PSG, thus there are several ways to rewrite the expression RGUUR−1 as: (1) (RGUUR−1U−1)U; (2) (RGU)U′ with U′=UR−1; or (3) (RGUR−1)U″ with U″=RUR−1. So how to understand these expressions?
As for (1): The question is whether RGUUR−1U−1 is an SU(2) gauge operator? More specifically, it seems generally impossible to write UR−1U−1 as an gauge operator generated by J=12ψ†τψ. However, if we generalize the definition of SU(2) gauge operators R to those satisfying 3 properties A: Unitary; B: RψiR−1=Wiψi,Wi∈SU(2) matrices, which implies that physical spins should be gauge invariant (e.g., RSiR−1=Si); and C: RP=PR=P with projection operator P, which implies that physical spin-space should be gauge invariant. Then one can show that UR−1U−1 indeed fulfills the above 3 properties A,B,C where U is time reversal, SU(2) spin rotation, or lattice symmetries. (Furthermore, R respects A,B,C ⇒R−1 respects A,B,C; R1,R2 both respect A,B,C ⇒R1R2 respects A,B,C.) Therefore, the expression RGUUR−1U−1 in (1) is an SU(2) gauge operator in the sense A,B,C.
As for (2) or (3): We may ask: If U represents some symmetry (e.g., time reversal, SU(2) spin rotation, or lattice symmetries), then does UR or RU still represent the same physical symmetry? Where R is an SU(2) gauge operator (in the sense A,B,C mentioned above). One can show that U′=UR or RU represents the same physical symmetry as U in the following sense: U′SiU′−1=USiU−1 and U′ϕ=Uϕ, where ϕ=Pϕ∈ physical spin space. (Note that U′ϕ=Uϕ is still a physical spin state due to [P,U]=[P,U′]=0.) Therefore, the U′ and U″ in expressions (2) and (3) indeed represent the same physical symmetry as U.
Are my understandings correct? Thanks in advance.
A useful formula: Let GiUi∈PSG(H),i=1,2,...,n, then the SU(2) gauge operator GU associated with the combined symmetry U=U1U2⋯Un has the following form GU=G1U1G2U2⋯Gn−1Un−1GnU−1n−1⋯U−12U−11 such that GUU∈PSG(H).
This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2015-02-25 16:26 (UTC), posted by SE-user Kai Li