Quantcast
  • Register
PhysicsOverflow is a next-generation academic platform for physicists and astronomers, including a community peer review system and a postgraduate-level discussion forum analogous to MathOverflow.

Welcome to PhysicsOverflow! PhysicsOverflow is an open platform for community peer review and graduate-level Physics discussion.

Please help promote PhysicsOverflow ads elsewhere if you like it.

News

PO is now at the Physics Department of Bielefeld University!

New printer friendly PO pages!

Migration to Bielefeld University was successful!

Please vote for this year's PhysicsOverflow ads!

Please do help out in categorising submissions. Submit a paper to PhysicsOverflow!

... see more

Tools for paper authors

Submit paper
Claim Paper Authorship

Tools for SE users

Search User
Reclaim SE Account
Request Account Merger
Nativise imported posts
Claim post (deleted users)
Import SE post

Users whose questions have been imported from Physics Stack Exchange, Theoretical Physics Stack Exchange, or any other Stack Exchange site are kindly requested to reclaim their account and not to register as a new user.

Public \(\beta\) tools

Report a bug with a feature
Request a new functionality
404 page design
Send feedback

Attributions

(propose a free ad)

Site Statistics

205 submissions , 163 unreviewed
5,082 questions , 2,232 unanswered
5,353 answers , 22,789 comments
1,470 users with positive rep
820 active unimported users
More ...

  Mistake or Rewriting of Yang-Mills in Nakahara

+ 0 like - 0 dislike
1800 views

I am familiar with Yang-Mills equation of motion E.O.M. (without matter or source fields) in differential form.

$$ D * F =0 $$ and Bianchi identity $$ D F=0 $$ where $F= dA + A \wedge A$ and $D=d + [A, ]$ as the covariant derivative version of exterior derivative $d$.

However, in Nakahar book Geometry, Topology and Physics, Second Edition ,

we can compare E.O.M. to his (1.269) below,

and Bianchi identity to his (1.266) below.

My question is that: Did Nakahara make any mistake? Or are his equations the rewriting of my Yang-Mills Equations above? If so, how do we convert to make the rewriting precise?

enter image description here

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2020-11-09 09:44 (UTC), posted by SE-user annie marie heart
asked May 19, 2019 in Theoretical Physics by annie marie heart (1,205 points) [ no revision ]
Note that the indices in Nakahara's formulae are contracted and have only one free index, while yours are equations for 3-forms and would have 3 free indices. Now think about what transforms a 3-form to a 1-form...

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2020-11-09 09:44 (UTC), posted by SE-user ACuriousMind
...in 4 spacetime dimensions

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2020-11-09 09:44 (UTC), posted by SE-user Kosm
You gotta remember that to get a "normal" contraction you always have to throw in a Hodge star. For example, the action contains $F \wedge \star F$, not $F \wedge F$ even though the $F$'s are just contracted in index notation. You can show this by just expanding everything in components.

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2020-11-09 09:44 (UTC), posted by SE-user knzhou

1 Answer

+ 2 like - 0 dislike

Let's take abelian gauge theory and Minkowski metric for simplicity.

Apply Hodge star to equations of motion $d*F=0$: $$ *d*F=*(\frac{1}{2}\partial_\mu\tilde{F}_{\nu\rho}~dx^\mu\wedge dx^\nu\wedge dx^\rho)=\frac{1}{2}\partial_\mu \tilde{F}_{\nu\rho}~dx^\sigma \eta_{\sigma\omega}\epsilon^{\omega\mu\nu\rho}=\\ =-\partial_\mu F^{\omega\mu}\eta_{\omega\sigma}dx^\sigma=0~\rightarrow~ \partial_\mu F^{\omega\mu}=0, $$ where I used $\tilde{F}_{\mu\nu}=\frac{1}{2}\epsilon_{\mu\nu\rho\sigma}F^{\rho\sigma}$ and Levi-Civita contractions. Bianchi identities can be "derived" in the same way (by expressing $F_{\mu\nu}$ in terms of $\tilde{F}_{\mu\nu}$).

Or you can simply convince yourself that the following expressions of Bianchi identities are equivalent $$ \partial_\mu F_{\nu\rho}+\partial_\rho F_{\mu\nu}+\partial_\nu F_{\rho\mu}=0~\Leftrightarrow~\epsilon^{\sigma\mu\nu\rho} \partial_\mu F_{\nu\rho}=0. $$ Substitute $\tilde{F}$ above for equations of motion.

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2020-11-09 09:44 (UTC), posted by SE-user Kosm
answered May 19, 2019 by Kosm (55 points) [ no revision ]

Your answer

Please use answers only to (at least partly) answer questions. To comment, discuss, or ask for clarification, leave a comment instead.
To mask links under text, please type your text, highlight it, and click the "link" button. You can then enter your link URL.
Please consult the FAQ for as to how to format your post.
This is the answer box; if you want to write a comment instead, please use the 'add comment' button.
Live preview (may slow down editor)   Preview
Your name to display (optional):
Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.
Anti-spam verification:
If you are a human please identify the position of the character covered by the symbol $\varnothing$ in the following word:
p$\hbar\varnothing$sicsOverflow
Then drag the red bullet below over the corresponding character of our banner. When you drop it there, the bullet changes to green (on slow internet connections after a few seconds).
Please complete the anti-spam verification




user contributions licensed under cc by-sa 3.0 with attribution required

Your rights
...