Quark mass vs Lepton mass $m_d/m_e$

Question

In Zee QFT in a nutshell book p.418, Zee said about Quark mass vs Lepton mass $m_d/m_e$ :

1. He first mentioned $m_d/m_e=1$ for unification scale.

2. Then he mentioned $m_d/m_e\sim 3 $ in eq.15.

Are these two facts contradicting each other? Generally, what can one say about the Quark mass vs Lepton mass in GUT or for unification scale?

It will be helpful to comment the text below with your explanations.

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2020-11-30 18:55 (UTC), posted by SE-user annie marie heart

Comments

Mass ratio is not invariant on the change of scale, and the scale depends on the energy level, etc. This is why we need higher energy to find some phenomena in particle phyics...This is what I heard before.

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2020-11-30 18:55 (UTC), posted by SE-user ChoMedit

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No contradiction; he explicitly says (3.15) is at the top-quark-mass scale, evolved down from the unification scale. Wildly unrealistic, but such was the giddy wishful thinking of the early 80s...

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2020-11-30 18:55 (UTC), posted by SE-user Cosmas Zachos

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what are some good refs on the mass contribution from 1-loop and from the Higgs in 45? thank you!!!

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2020-11-30 18:55 (UTC), posted by SE-user annie marie heart