Quantcast
  • Register
PhysicsOverflow is a next-generation academic platform for physicists and astronomers, including a community peer review system and a postgraduate-level discussion forum analogous to MathOverflow.

Welcome to PhysicsOverflow! PhysicsOverflow is an open platform for community peer review and graduate-level Physics discussion.

Please help promote PhysicsOverflow ads elsewhere if you like it.

News

PO is now at the Physics Department of Bielefeld University!

New printer friendly PO pages!

Migration to Bielefeld University was successful!

Please vote for this year's PhysicsOverflow ads!

Please do help out in categorising submissions. Submit a paper to PhysicsOverflow!

... see more

Tools for paper authors

Submit paper
Claim Paper Authorship

Tools for SE users

Search User
Reclaim SE Account
Request Account Merger
Nativise imported posts
Claim post (deleted users)
Import SE post

Users whose questions have been imported from Physics Stack Exchange, Theoretical Physics Stack Exchange, or any other Stack Exchange site are kindly requested to reclaim their account and not to register as a new user.

Public \(\beta\) tools

Report a bug with a feature
Request a new functionality
404 page design
Send feedback

Attributions

(propose a free ad)

Site Statistics

206 submissions , 164 unreviewed
5,103 questions , 2,249 unanswered
5,355 answers , 22,793 comments
1,470 users with positive rep
820 active unimported users
More ...

  Mass of a superstring between two branes?

+ 4 like - 0 dislike
661 views

A open bosonic string between two parallel branes seems to obey formulae such as

$M^2 = \big((n + {\theta_i - \theta_j \over 2 \pi}) {R' \over \alpha'}\big)^2 + {N-1 \over \alpha'} $

So that the difference $\theta_i - \theta_j$ is the distance between branes. Now I wonder, which is the formula for the superstring stretched between two parallel branes? Is it the same?

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-03-07 16:39 (UCT), posted by SE-user arivero
asked Dec 6, 2012 in Theoretical Physics by - (260 points) [ no revision ]

1 Answer

+ 1 like - 0 dislike

It is very similar actually, but not exactly the same, unless you put the equation in a different form. In natural units where $\hbar =c_0=\ell_s=1$

$${m^2} = \left( {N - a} \right) + {\left( {\frac{y}{{2\pi }}} \right)^2}$$

What have I done? I wrote the "1" in the equation as $a$, the normal ordering constant. This is the important part. The normal ordering constant and number operator are what change for a superstring. The rest of the intuition/proof is the same.

Note: I also changed the notation for the separation to $y$ and I got rid of the $\alpha'=\ell_s^2$ because of the use of natural units. That makes sense, because even in your equation, you are using $\hbar=c_0=1$, just without the $\alpha'$.

answered Jun 16, 2013 by dimension10 (1,985 points) [ revision history ]

Your answer

Please use answers only to (at least partly) answer questions. To comment, discuss, or ask for clarification, leave a comment instead.
To mask links under text, please type your text, highlight it, and click the "link" button. You can then enter your link URL.
Please consult the FAQ for as to how to format your post.
This is the answer box; if you want to write a comment instead, please use the 'add comment' button.
Live preview (may slow down editor)   Preview
Your name to display (optional):
Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.
Anti-spam verification:
If you are a human please identify the position of the character covered by the symbol $\varnothing$ in the following word:
p$\hbar$ysicsOverflo$\varnothing$
Then drag the red bullet below over the corresponding character of our banner. When you drop it there, the bullet changes to green (on slow internet connections after a few seconds).
Please complete the anti-spam verification




user contributions licensed under cc by-sa 3.0 with attribution required

Your rights
...