Quantcast
  • Register
PhysicsOverflow is a next-generation academic platform for physicists and astronomers, including a community peer review system and a postgraduate-level discussion forum analogous to MathOverflow.

Welcome to PhysicsOverflow! PhysicsOverflow is an open platform for community peer review and graduate-level Physics discussion.

Please help promote PhysicsOverflow ads elsewhere if you like it.

News

PO is now at the Physics Department of Bielefeld University!

New printer friendly PO pages!

Migration to Bielefeld University was successful!

Please vote for this year's PhysicsOverflow ads!

Please do help out in categorising submissions. Submit a paper to PhysicsOverflow!

... see more

Tools for paper authors

Submit paper
Claim Paper Authorship

Tools for SE users

Search User
Reclaim SE Account
Request Account Merger
Nativise imported posts
Claim post (deleted users)
Import SE post

Users whose questions have been imported from Physics Stack Exchange, Theoretical Physics Stack Exchange, or any other Stack Exchange site are kindly requested to reclaim their account and not to register as a new user.

Public \(\beta\) tools

Report a bug with a feature
Request a new functionality
404 page design
Send feedback

Attributions

(propose a free ad)

Site Statistics

206 submissions , 164 unreviewed
5,103 questions , 2,249 unanswered
5,355 answers , 22,794 comments
1,470 users with positive rep
820 active unimported users
More ...

  Integrating over a gauge field in the field integral formalism

+ 5 like - 0 dislike
1678 views

I'm currently trying to study a chapter in Altland & Simons, "Condensed Matter Field Theory" (2nd edition) and I'm stuck at the end of section 9.5.2, page 579.

Given the euclidean Chern-Simons action for a gauge field $a_µ$ that is coupled to a current $j_µ$

$$ S[a_µ,j_µ] = ∫d^3x (j_µ a_µ + \frac{iθ}4ε_{µνλ}a_µ ∂_ν a_λ) $$

the task is to integrate out the gauge field and obtain the effective action for the current.

Since this is a gauge field, we have to take care about the superfluous gauge degree of freedom. Altland & Simons note that one way to do it would be to introduce a gauge fixing term $α (∂_µ a_µ)^2$ and let $α\to ∞$ at the end.

However, this does not seem to work. In momentum space, the Chern-Simons action plus gauge fixing terms is proportional to

$$∫ d^3q\ a_µ(-q) \left( \begin{array}{ccc} \alpha q_0^2 & -i q_2 & i q_1 \\ i q_2 & \alpha q_1^2 & -i q_0 \\ -i q_1 & i q_0 & \alpha q_2^2 \end{array} \right)_{µν} a_ν(q) .$$

To get the effective action for the current, I just have to invert this matrix, which we call $A_{µν}$, and send $α\to ∞$. But this can't be. For instance, one entry of the inverse matrix reads

$$ A^{-1}_{01} = \frac{-q_0 q_1-i q_2^3 \alpha }{q_1^2 q_2^2 q_0^2 \alpha ^3- α(q_0^4+q_1^4+q_2^4) } $$

and this vanishes in the limit $α\to∞$. Same for the other entries. This is bad.

My question, hence

How to properly perform the functional integral over a gauge field $a_µ$ with a gauge fixing contribution $α(∂_µ a_µ)^2$ where $α\to ∞$?

I am aware that there are other methods, for instance to integrate only over the transverse degrees of freedom, as Altland & Simons note. I don't mind learning about them as well, but I would like to understand the one presented here in particular. Not to mention that I may have made a simple mistake in the calculation above.

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-04-05 17:31 (UCT), posted by SE-user Greg Graviton
asked May 12, 2012 in Theoretical Physics by Greg Graviton (775 points) [ no revision ]
Just in case people don't notice (I only noticed because of @Moshe 's answer): the mistake made above is that $\alpha(\partial_\mu a_\nu)^2 = \alpha(\partial_\mu a_\mu) (\partial_\nu a_\nu)$, so each matrix $A_{\mu \nu}$ entry must contain the term $\alpha q_\mu q_\nu$. Right now this only appears in the diagonal components.

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-04-05 17:31 (UCT), posted by SE-user Olaf
Oops, indeed. This term does and should correspond to the projection $L_{µν} a_ν = \frac{q_µq_ν}{q^2} a_ν$ onto the longitudinal degrees of freedom.

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-04-05 17:31 (UCT), posted by SE-user Greg Graviton

1 Answer

+ 6 like - 0 dislike

In the present case I think that it is more convenient to perform the propagator computation covariantly (and not in components).

The inverse propagator (in the momentum space) can be read from the Abelian Chern Simons action including the gauge fixing term as:

$ G^{-1}_{\mu\nu}(k) = \alpha q_{\mu} q_{\nu} + i \frac{\theta}{4} \epsilon_{\mu\nu\rho}q^{\rho}$

For the propagator we use the Ansatz:

$G_{\sigma\tau}(k) = \beta q_{\sigma} q_{\tau} + i \gamma \epsilon_{\sigma\tau\eta}q^{\eta}$

The parameters $\beta$ and $\gamma$ must be calculated fro the condition:

$ G^{-1}_{\mu\nu}(k) \delta^{\nu\sigma} G_{\sigma\tau}(k)= \delta_{\mu\tau} $

Please observe that the propagator cannot contain a term proportional to $\delta_{\nu\sigma}$, because this term would result a term proportional to $\epsilon_{\mu\sigma\tau}q^{\tau}$ after contraction with the inverse propagator which cannot be canceled with any other term.

We obtain:

$(\alpha \beta q^2 -\frac{\theta}{4} \gamma) q_{\mu} q_{\tau} + \frac{\theta}{4} \gamma q^2 \delta^{\mu\tau} = \delta^{\mu\tau}$

(Where, The following identity was used: $\delta^{\nu \sigma}\epsilon_{\mu\nu\rho} \epsilon_{\sigma\tau\eta} = \delta_{\mu \eta}\delta_{\rho \tau}- \delta_{\mu \tau}\delta_{\rho \eta}$)

Thus:

$ \gamma = \frac{4}{\theta q^2}$

$ \beta = \frac{\theta \gamma }{4 \alpha q^2} = \frac{1}{\alpha q^4}$

Thus $ \beta $ vanishes in the limit $ \alpha \to \infty$ and we are left with the effective action:

$ \frac{1}{\theta}\int d^3q J^{\sigma}(-q) \frac{\epsilon_{\sigma\tau\eta}q^{\eta}}{q^2} J^{\tau}(-q)$

The factor 4 cancels with a similar factor coming from the square completion.

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-04-05 17:31 (UCT), posted by SE-user David Bar Moshe
answered May 13, 2012 by David Bar Moshe (4,355 points) [ no revision ]
Thank you! I now also understand why the method of letting $α\to ∞$ works for any gauge invariant action. The reason is simply that a gauge invariant action projects onto the the transversal degrees of freedom while the expression $\frac{q_νq_µ}{q^2}$ projects on the longitudinal degree of freedom.

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-04-05 17:31 (UCT), posted by SE-user Greg Graviton

Your answer

Please use answers only to (at least partly) answer questions. To comment, discuss, or ask for clarification, leave a comment instead.
To mask links under text, please type your text, highlight it, and click the "link" button. You can then enter your link URL.
Please consult the FAQ for as to how to format your post.
This is the answer box; if you want to write a comment instead, please use the 'add comment' button.
Live preview (may slow down editor)   Preview
Your name to display (optional):
Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.
Anti-spam verification:
If you are a human please identify the position of the character covered by the symbol $\varnothing$ in the following word:
p$\hbar$ysics$\varnothing$verflow
Then drag the red bullet below over the corresponding character of our banner. When you drop it there, the bullet changes to green (on slow internet connections after a few seconds).
Please complete the anti-spam verification




user contributions licensed under cc by-sa 3.0 with attribution required

Your rights
...