In some of the literature (for example, below Eq. (A3) of this paper), the following is claimed to be the Chern-Simons term in the Coulomb gauge:
2a0(∂1a2−∂2a1)
and it cited this paper, which below its Eq. (5) states that the above term is the Chern-Simons term in radiation gauge.
My questions are:
1. Is the radiation gauge the same as the Coulomb gauge, where ∂1a1+∂2a2=0.
2. Why is the above term the Chern-Simons in the Coulomb gauge? The standard Chern-Simons term is
ϵμνλaμ∂νaλ=a0(∂1a2−∂2a1)+a1(∂2a0−∂0a2)+a2(∂0a1−∂1a0)
After integrating by parts it becomes
ϵμνλaμ∂νaλ→2a0(∂1a2−∂2a1)+2a2∂0a1
which still differs from 2a0(∂1a2−∂2a1) by the last term that does not seem to vanish in the Coulomb gauge.