I guess, it's true, although I never heard of it. Let's denote S−1F(x)=(iγμ∂μ−m)(x) First let's compute [S−1F(−x)]†. Assuming that (∂μ)†=∂μ we get
[S−1F(−x)]†=(−iγ†μ∂μ−m)(−x)=(iγ†μ∂μ−m)(x)
Using γ0γ0=1 and γ0γμγ0=γ†μ we get
γ0[S−1F(−x)]†γ0=(iγ0γ†μγ0∂μ−mγ0γ0)(x)=(iγμ∂μ−m)(x)=S−1F(x)
But how do we prove, that it also holds for SF(x)?
Let's apply this transformation on the defining equation S−1F(x)SF(x)=δ(x). Then we get:
γ0(S−1F(−x)SF(−x))†γ0=γ0δ(−x)†γ0
The l.h.s. gives: γ0(S−1F(−x)SF(−x))†γ0=γ0S†F(−x)[←S−1F(−x)]†γ0=γ0S†F(−x)γ0γ0[←S−1F(−x)]†γ0=γ0S†F(−x)γ0←S−1F(x)
where in the last step we used the relation for S−1F derived in the beginning.
The r.h.s. simply gives γ0δ(−x)†γ0=δ(x) since the delta function is symmetric. And yeah, we need to assume that it is self-adjoint.
From this we see that γ0S†F(−x)γ0←S−1F(x)=δ(x)
and therefore
γ0S†F(−x)γ0 is the Green's function of
S−1F which is unique. Therefore it must hold
γ0S†F(−x)γ0=SF(x)
This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-04-13 11:29 (UCT), posted by SE-user Photon