Quantcast
  • Register
PhysicsOverflow is a next-generation academic platform for physicists and astronomers, including a community peer review system and a postgraduate-level discussion forum analogous to MathOverflow.

Welcome to PhysicsOverflow! PhysicsOverflow is an open platform for community peer review and graduate-level Physics discussion.

Please help promote PhysicsOverflow ads elsewhere if you like it.

News

PO is now at the Physics Department of Bielefeld University!

New printer friendly PO pages!

Migration to Bielefeld University was successful!

Please vote for this year's PhysicsOverflow ads!

Please do help out in categorising submissions. Submit a paper to PhysicsOverflow!

... see more

Tools for paper authors

Submit paper
Claim Paper Authorship

Tools for SE users

Search User
Reclaim SE Account
Request Account Merger
Nativise imported posts
Claim post (deleted users)
Import SE post

Users whose questions have been imported from Physics Stack Exchange, Theoretical Physics Stack Exchange, or any other Stack Exchange site are kindly requested to reclaim their account and not to register as a new user.

Public \(\beta\) tools

Report a bug with a feature
Request a new functionality
404 page design
Send feedback

Attributions

(propose a free ad)

Site Statistics

205 submissions , 163 unreviewed
5,082 questions , 2,232 unanswered
5,353 answers , 22,789 comments
1,470 users with positive rep
820 active unimported users
More ...

  Quantization of strings, string Fock space and transition to QFT

+ 2 like - 0 dislike
506 views

I am not an expert of string theory and am quiet uncertain about these basic ideas of string theory I am going to ask and would appreciate some hints of more experienced physicists.

What I am trying to understand is how string theory can describe particles as quantum fields as it is done by quantum field thoery. After all it is said that QFT can be seen in low energy string theory.

What I would like to do is to compare second quantization in QFT to string theory. In QFT, if the wave function of a quantum mechanical particle can be described as a superposition of a complete set of wave functions $\{\phi_i(x)\}$, then we can define creation (annihilation) $a_i^+$($a_i$) operators which generate symmetrized/antisymmetrized products of corresponding one-particles states. So, by this construction we have for example $|100\dots\rangle = a_1^+|0\rangle = |\phi_1\rangle$ where again $\langle x|\phi_1\rangle= \phi_1(x)$. The commutation relations for $a_i^+$ and $a_i$ follow by construction, this is then called canonical quantization. Finally, changing the basis from $\{|\phi_i\rangle\}$ to $\{|x\rangle\}$ we obtain the field operators $\psi(x) = \sum_i\phi_i(x)a_i$ and $\psi(x)^+ = \sum_i\phi_i^*(x)a_i^+$, such that $\psi(x)^+|0\rangle = |x\rangle = \sum_i\phi_i^*(x)|\phi_i\rangle$. So, to sum up, field operators $\psi(x)^+$ create superposition states with a probability distribution which is equal to a delta function: $$ \langle x'|x\rangle = \sum_i\psi_i(x')\psi_i^*(x) = \delta(x-x')$$ And again, commutation relations for field operators follow by definition.

Now in string theory, the coordinates $(\sigma,\tau)$ on the world sheet which parametrize the embedding $X^\mu(\sigma,\tau)$ of the string into the space-time play the role of space-time coordinates $(x,t)$ in QFT, and the embedded string $X^\mu(\sigma,\tau)$ plays the same role as field operators $\psi(x)$, and with these identifications the quantization is done along the same lines. But with this construction it is not clear to me, what these operators $X^\mu$ really represent. If in QFT $\psi(x)|0\rangle$ was a localized wave function of a one-particle state, what is $X^\mu(\sigma,\tau)|0\rangle$? A wave-function localized on the world-sheet? How can we then identify something that lives on some fictitions two-dimensional parameter space $(\sigma,\tau)$ with particles in 4-dimensional space-time? And what is the Fock space and the states therein in string theory? If someone tells me that something like $\alpha^\mu|0\rangle$ ($\alpha^\mu$ being the modes of $X^\mu$) can for example be seen as a photon state, the only thing that I see in common with the photon is the vector index $\mu$. Photons that I know are bosons described by a probability distribution over the space-time. In this sense, how can I make the identification with $\alpha^\mu|0\rangle$?

I would very much appreciate any help to disentangle these ideas!

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-06-03 16:40 (UCT), posted by SE-user Stan
asked May 28, 2014 in Theoretical Physics by Stan (60 points) [ no revision ]

Your answer

Please use answers only to (at least partly) answer questions. To comment, discuss, or ask for clarification, leave a comment instead.
To mask links under text, please type your text, highlight it, and click the "link" button. You can then enter your link URL.
Please consult the FAQ for as to how to format your post.
This is the answer box; if you want to write a comment instead, please use the 'add comment' button.
Live preview (may slow down editor)   Preview
Your name to display (optional):
Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.
Anti-spam verification:
If you are a human please identify the position of the character covered by the symbol $\varnothing$ in the following word:
p$\hbar$ysicsOverfl$\varnothing$w
Then drag the red bullet below over the corresponding character of our banner. When you drop it there, the bullet changes to green (on slow internet connections after a few seconds).
Please complete the anti-spam verification




user contributions licensed under cc by-sa 3.0 with attribution required

Your rights
...