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  Supersymmetry breaking and normalizable zero modes

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Why does supersymmetry always lead to normalizable zero modes?

For example, it is stated in the paper by Michelson and Kaplan (http://arxiv.org/abs/hep-th/9510053) that we can assume, without loss of generality, that the zero modes corresponding to the 3-form field of 11 dimensional supergravity are normalizable.


This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2015-10-31 22:16 (UTC), posted by SE-user leastaction

asked Oct 25, 2015 in Theoretical Physics by leastaction (425 points) [ revision history ]
edited Oct 31, 2015 by Dilaton

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