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Can the CPT theorem be valid if Lorentz invariance is only spontaneously broken?

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Earlier, I asked here whether one can have spontaneous breaking of the Lorentz symmetry and was shown a Lorentz invariant term that can drive the vacuum to not be Lorentz invariant. How relaxed are the assumptions in the CPT theorem? Can one have the theorem to be valid for a Lorentz invariant theory with a vacuum that breaks it? Can someone point me to the original and alternate proofs of this theorem?

Also, is there any connection between CPT invariance and renormalizability?

This post has been migrated from (A51.SE)

asked Oct 4, 2011 in Theoretical Physics by dbrane (375 points) [ no revision ]

Original Article: http://arxiv.org/abs/hep-ph/0201258

This post has been migrated from (A51.SE)

commented Oct 4, 2011 by Benjamin Horowitz (195 points) [ no revision ]

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