Ok, I answer it myself. The reason is as follows; Based on gauge invariance the self-energy at one loop has to look like Π=(gμνp2A−pμpνB)
where A and B are the explicit divergences not yet determined. However, in an explicit loop computation the first term does only arise with a divergence in D=2 whereas the second with a divergence in D=4 and not worse. But in order for gauge invariance to be true
A=B has to hold, i.e. the divergence is actually only in four dimensions and not in two.
Edit: It a pity that I can't accept my own answer :D
This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-04-15 16:38 (UCT), posted by SE-user A friendly helper