I am trying to understand Dyson's argument about the divergent nature of the perturbative expansion in QED. Quoting his own words [Source: hep-ph:0508017 (PDF)]
... let
F(e2)=a0+a1e2+a2e4+…
be a physical quantity which is calculated as a formal power series in e2 by integrating the equations of motion of the theory over a finite or infinite time.Suppose, if possible, that the series... converges for some positive
value of e2; this implies that F(e2) is an analytic function
of e at e=0. Then for sufficiently small value of e, F(−e2) will also be a well-behaved analytic function with a convergent power series expansion.
My question is, why does the convergence of the series for some positive value of e2 imply that it must be analytic at e=0?