Quantcast
  • Register
PhysicsOverflow is a next-generation academic platform for physicists and astronomers, including a community peer review system and a postgraduate-level discussion forum analogous to MathOverflow.

Welcome to PhysicsOverflow! PhysicsOverflow is an open platform for community peer review and graduate-level Physics discussion.

Please help promote PhysicsOverflow ads elsewhere if you like it.

News

PO is now at the Physics Department of Bielefeld University!

New printer friendly PO pages!

Migration to Bielefeld University was successful!

Please vote for this year's PhysicsOverflow ads!

Please do help out in categorising submissions. Submit a paper to PhysicsOverflow!

... see more

Tools for paper authors

Submit paper
Claim Paper Authorship

Tools for SE users

Search User
Reclaim SE Account
Request Account Merger
Nativise imported posts
Claim post (deleted users)
Import SE post

Users whose questions have been imported from Physics Stack Exchange, Theoretical Physics Stack Exchange, or any other Stack Exchange site are kindly requested to reclaim their account and not to register as a new user.

Public \(\beta\) tools

Report a bug with a feature
Request a new functionality
404 page design
Send feedback

Attributions

(propose a free ad)

Site Statistics

206 submissions , 164 unreviewed
5,103 questions , 2,249 unanswered
5,355 answers , 22,800 comments
1,470 users with positive rep
820 active unimported users
More ...

  How to proof Frobenius Theorem in general?

+ 1 like - 0 dislike
4345 views

The general Frobenius Theorem stating that

Let $u_1,\dots,u_k$ be $k$ smooth linearly independent vector field on $M$. Let $$ W=\operatorname{Span}(u_1,\cdots,u_k) $$ Then $[u_i,u_j]\in W$ for any $i,j$ if and only if there exist foliation by $k$ dimension hypersurface tangent to $M$.

To my understanding,

there exist foliation by $k$ dimension hypersurface tangent to $M$.

means there is a cooridnate $(w_1,\cdots,w_{n-k},x_1,\cdots,x_k)$ such that $$ u_i=\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i} $$

I know the proof of the special case where $k=2$. To prove the general case, there is a hint saying using induction on $k$. However, I am not clear how to commit the induction. I tried to consider $[u_{k-1},u_k]$, but we only have $$ [u_{k-1},u_k]\in\operatorname{Span}(u_1,\cdots,u_k) $$ rather than $$ [u_{k-1},u_k]\in\operatorname{Span}(u_{k-1},u_k) $$ So I cannot perform the simpler case. Could anyone help?

This post imported from StackExchange Mathematics at 2014-09-24 21:03 (UTC), posted by SE-user hxhxhx88
asked May 11, 2014 in Mathematics by hxhxhx88 (5 points) [ no revision ]
The case k=1 follows from an existence and uniqueness theorem for ODE's. The step to k=2 from the proof you know should be the same as the on from k-1 to k in the induction.

This post imported from StackExchange Mathematics at 2014-09-24 21:03 (UTC), posted by SE-user MBN
Although I think this is a good and interesting question, I don't think it belongs on this site (math.SE would be better, clearly).

This post imported from StackExchange Mathematics at 2014-09-24 21:03 (UTC), posted by SE-user Danu
@MBN, sorry I don't get your words. Could you explain a little more?

This post imported from StackExchange Mathematics at 2014-09-24 21:03 (UTC), posted by SE-user hxhxhx88

1 Answer

+ 0 like - 0 dislike

Here is a way of thinking about Frobenius theorem that might help to understand the theorem and its proof.

The condition that one has a set of $k$ linearly independent complete vector fields on $M$ closed by the Lie bracket of vector fields means that one has a Lie subalgebra of the Lie algebra of vector fields of $M$.

One can, then, invoke Picard-Lindelöf's theorem (on existence and uniqueness of solutions for ODE's) and use the flow of each vector field to provide an action of the associated Lie group on $M$. This action induces a foliation on $M$, the orbits of this action are the leaves of the foliation.

This post imported from StackExchange Mathematics at 2014-09-24 21:03 (UTC), posted by SE-user Romero Solha
answered May 16, 2014 by Romero Solha (0 points) [ no revision ]
Yes, I can imagine such picture, but still not sure how to prove rigorously. Anyway, thanks:)

This post imported from StackExchange Mathematics at 2014-09-24 21:03 (UTC), posted by SE-user hxhxhx88
This is a, rigorous, proof of it. It is not hard to work the details of it.

This post imported from StackExchange Mathematics at 2014-09-24 21:03 (UTC), posted by SE-user Romero Solha

Your answer

Please use answers only to (at least partly) answer questions. To comment, discuss, or ask for clarification, leave a comment instead.
To mask links under text, please type your text, highlight it, and click the "link" button. You can then enter your link URL.
Please consult the FAQ for as to how to format your post.
This is the answer box; if you want to write a comment instead, please use the 'add comment' button.
Live preview (may slow down editor)   Preview
Your name to display (optional):
Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.
Anti-spam verification:
If you are a human please identify the position of the character covered by the symbol $\varnothing$ in the following word:
p$\varnothing$ysicsOverflow
Then drag the red bullet below over the corresponding character of our banner. When you drop it there, the bullet changes to green (on slow internet connections after a few seconds).
Please complete the anti-spam verification




user contributions licensed under cc by-sa 3.0 with attribution required

Your rights
...