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  Indices of a Pauli matrix transformed in the Lorentz representation

+ 3 like - 0 dislike
4436 views

When Peskin and Schroeder want to prove a Fierz identity on page 51, they make use of the identity (σμ)αβ(σμ)γδ=2ϵαγϵβδ. where σμ(1,σ). They state "One can understand this relation by noting that the indices α,γ transform in the Lorentz representation of ψL, while β,δ transform in the separate representation of ψR, and the whole quantity must be a Lorentz invariant." What do they want to say?

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2015-04-17 07:39 (UTC), posted by SE-user L. Su
asked Apr 16, 2015 in Theoretical Physics by DarKnightS (125 points) [ no revision ]
reshown Apr 17, 2015 by DarKnightS
@Jia Yiyang You had the answer. The question may not be "high-level" enough to go to Overflow.

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2015-04-17 07:39 (UTC), posted by SE-user L. Su

Hi @L.Su,

it is ok to ask such graduate-level technical questions on PO, they are welcome.

@Dilaton Haha. Thank you. I certainly have no idea how to define "graduate-level."

Let's not water PO down.

3 Answers

+ 3 like - 0 dislike

Ok, here's what I figured out after you asked me the question:

Recall how (the spinor representation of) Lorentz transformations act on gamma matrices:

S1(Λ)γμS(Λ)=Λμ  νγν(1),

where according to Peskin and Schroeder, 

S(Λ)=[SL(Λ)00SR(Λ)](2),

where SL and SR are transformations that act on  left-handed spinor ψL and right-handed spinor ψR(see P&S's equation (3.37)). And 

γμ=[0σμˉσμ0](3).

Plug (2) and (3) into (1) you immediately see 

S1LσμSR=Λμ  νσν(4).

Note SL acts on the row index while SR acts on the column index, and this is the meaning of 

.... that the indices α,γ transform in the Lorentz representation of ψL, while β,δ transform in the separate representation of ψR...

Clearly this implies that σμσμ is invariant under the transformation of the LHS of (4). In terms of matrix entries, if we define

Iαγβδ:=(σμ)αβ(σμ)γδ(5),

 then 

(S1L)αα(S1L)γγIαγβδ(SR)ββ(SR)δδ=Iαγβδ(6).

We need to solve for Iαγβδ. Now clearly ϵαγϵβδ is a solution, because of the identity ϵijAliAkj=det(A)ϵlk, and our SL,SR both have determinant 1. The proportionality constant 2 can be obtained by comparing appropriate entries on both sides of the equation (σμ)αβ(σμ)γδ=const×ϵαγϵβδ.

Now the only gap remained is the uniqueness of the solution. To prove uniqueness it is convenient to re-write (6) as a matrix equation:I(SRSR)=(SLSL)I(7),

where I and SS are 4×4 matrices, in particular, the row index for I is the pair αγ and column index is the pair βδ. We are going to apply Schur's lemma to (7).

Recall in the standard representation theory analysis of Lorentz group, SL is in the (12,0) representation and SR is in the (0,12) representation, hence SLSL(1,0)(0,0) and SRSR(0,1)(0,0). Note they only share the 1-dimensional representation (0,0). Then Schur's lemma basically says in suitable basis, matrix I is block diagonal with a 3 by 3 block and a 1 by 1 block, and the 3 by 3 block is a zero matrix, and the 1 by 1 block of course is unique up to scaling. Then return to the original basis you start with, we conclude the matrix I must be unique up to scaling.

Q.E.D

A small caveat: the choice of basis (to have block diagonalization)is only unique up to an arbitrary linear combination within each invariant subspaces, and this freedom is implemented by multiplying a 3+1 block diagonal matrix to your original similarity transfomation, and you can easily show this does not affect the uniqueness.   

answered Apr 17, 2015 by Jia Yiyang (2,640 points) [ revision history ]
edited Apr 17, 2015 by Jia Yiyang

Very detailed!

+ 2 like - 0 dislike

They mean that - apart from being able to verify the equation by brute force evaluation of both sides - one can see that it must be true based on symmetry consideration.

One has a Lorentz scalar if one multiplies the left hand side by spinors uαL, vβR, wγL, and zδR (whose chirality is given by the index L or R) and sums over repeated indices. Thus the result must be a scalar formed out of these spinors, and linear in each of them. This gives a linear combination of the possibilities (uLϵwL)(vRϵzR)(uLvR)(wLzR), and (uLzR)(wLvR). Only the first one has the right tensor product structure to work. Thus the formula holds up to a constant factor, which is obtained by evaluating the left hand side for the particular choice α=β=1,γ=δ=2, say.

answered Apr 17, 2015 by Arnold Neumaier (15,787 points) [ revision history ]
edited Apr 17, 2015 by Arnold Neumaier
+ 1 like - 2 dislike
  1. The Pauli matrices anticommute, so the product of two of them has to be antisymmetric in its indices.

  2. The only antisymmetric 2-tensor in two dimensions is the Levi-Civita symbol ϵ.

Hence, you can "guess" the structure of the product in question up to a constant without calculating anything explicitly.

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2015-04-17 07:39 (UTC), posted by SE-user ACuriousMind
answered Apr 16, 2015 by ACuriousMind (910 points) [ no revision ]
How do you attach the indices? I would like to know you understanding of the statement as well.

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2015-04-17 07:39 (UTC), posted by SE-user L. Su
-1. this is a tensor product, you cannot apply "anticommute"argument this way, besides even if you can, a pauli matrix does not anticommute with itself.

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