Quantcast
  • Register
PhysicsOverflow is a next-generation academic platform for physicists and astronomers, including a community peer review system and a postgraduate-level discussion forum analogous to MathOverflow.

Welcome to PhysicsOverflow! PhysicsOverflow is an open platform for community peer review and graduate-level Physics discussion.

Please help promote PhysicsOverflow ads elsewhere if you like it.

News

PO is now at the Physics Department of Bielefeld University!

New printer friendly PO pages!

Migration to Bielefeld University was successful!

Please vote for this year's PhysicsOverflow ads!

Please do help out in categorising submissions. Submit a paper to PhysicsOverflow!

... see more

Tools for paper authors

Submit paper
Claim Paper Authorship

Tools for SE users

Search User
Reclaim SE Account
Request Account Merger
Nativise imported posts
Claim post (deleted users)
Import SE post

Users whose questions have been imported from Physics Stack Exchange, Theoretical Physics Stack Exchange, or any other Stack Exchange site are kindly requested to reclaim their account and not to register as a new user.

Public \(\beta\) tools

Report a bug with a feature
Request a new functionality
404 page design
Send feedback

Attributions

(propose a free ad)

Site Statistics

205 submissions , 163 unreviewed
5,082 questions , 2,232 unanswered
5,353 answers , 22,789 comments
1,470 users with positive rep
820 active unimported users
More ...

  One question about "D-branes and K-Theory"

+ 2 like - 0 dislike
1207 views

I am trying to understand the equation

on page 4 of http://arxiv.org/pdf/hep-th/9810188v2.pdf

Making my proper computation I am obtaining

$$\int_{S^8}ch(V)= \prod _{i=1}^{16}\int_{S^8}(e^{\lambda_{i}}+e^{-\lambda_{i}})=\int_{S^8}2^{16}\frac{p_2(V)}{6} =\int_{S^8}\frac{32768}{3}p_2(V) =  integer$$

and then we obtain

$$\int_{S^8}p_2(V) = 3k$$

where $k$ is an integer.

But the equation (2.2) on page 3 of  http://arxiv.org/pdf/hep-th/9810188v2.pdf   says

$$\int_{S^8}p_2(V) = 6k$$

My question is if my computation is correct and how conciliate my results with (2.2) and (2.3) of  http://arxiv.org/pdf/hep-th/9810188v2.pdf .

asked Sep 10, 2015 in Theoretical Physics by juancho (1,130 points) [ revision history ]

2 Answers

+ 4 like - 0 dislike

It is just not true that 

$\int_{S^8}ch(V)=\prod_i \int_{S^8}(e^{\lambda_i}+e^{-\lambda_i})$

The correct formula is 

$\int_{S^8}ch(V)=\sum_i \int_{S^8}(e^{\lambda_i}+e^{-\lambda_i})$

(the Chern character is the SUM of the exponentials of the Chern roots).

From there it is easy to check the formula of the paper:

$\sum_i \int_{S^8}(e^{\lambda_i}+e^{-\lambda_i})=\sum_i \int_{S^8} 2 \frac{\lambda_i^4}{4!}$

and conclude using $(\sum_i x_i)^2 = \sum_i x_i^2+2\sum_{i<j}x_i x_j$ with $x_i=\lambda_i^2$ and using the fact that $p_1(V)=\sum_i \lambda_i^2=0$.

answered Sep 10, 2015 by 40227 (5,140 points) [ revision history ]

Many thanks for your answer.  I was confused about the relevant representation of $SO(32)$ that is used in the Witten´s paper.  I was considering the spinor representation of $SO(32)$ but Witten is using the adjoint representation of $SO(32)$.  All is clear now.  Thank you.

+ 2 like - 0 dislike

Other form to derive (2.3) is as follows.

$$ch(V)= Tr(e^{{\frac {iV}{2\pi}}})=Tr(1)+Tr(\frac {iV}{2\pi})+\frac{1}{2!}Tr([\frac {iV}{2\pi}]^2)+$$

$$\frac{1}{3!}Tr([\frac {iV}{2\pi}]^3)+\frac{1}{4!}Tr([\frac {iV}{2\pi}]^4)+...$$

Taking the 8-form we have

$$ch(V)_{8-form}=\frac{1}{4!}Tr([\frac {iV}{2\pi}]^4)={\frac {1}{384}}\,{\frac {{\it Tr} \left( {
V}^{4} \right) }{{\pi }^{4}}}$$

Now given that

$$p_{{1}} \left( V \right) =-\frac{1}{8}\,{\frac {{\it Tr} \left( {V}^{2}
 \right) }{{\pi }^{2}}}$$

$$p_{{2}} \left( V \right) ={\frac {1}{128}}\,{\frac {-2\,{\it Tr}
 \left( {V}^{4} \right) + \left( {\it Tr} \left( {V}^{2} \right)
 \right) ^{2}}{{\pi }^{4}}}$$

and using that $p_1(V)=0$ we obtain $Tr(V^2) = 0$ and then

$$p_{{2}} \left( V \right) ={\frac {1}{128}}\,{\frac {-2\,{\it Tr}
 \left( {V}^{4} \right) }{{\pi }^{4}}}= -{\frac {1}{64}}\,{\frac {{\it Tr}
 \left( {V}^{4} \right) }{{\pi }^{4}}}$$

which is equivalent to

$${\it Tr} \left( {V}^{4} \right) =-64\,p_{{2}} \left( V \right) {\pi }^{4}$$

Using this last result we obtain finally

$$ch(V)_{8-form}=-\frac{1}{6}p_{{2}} \left( V \right) $$

answered Sep 10, 2015 by juancho (1,130 points) [ revision history ]
edited Sep 10, 2015 by juancho

Your answer

Please use answers only to (at least partly) answer questions. To comment, discuss, or ask for clarification, leave a comment instead.
To mask links under text, please type your text, highlight it, and click the "link" button. You can then enter your link URL.
Please consult the FAQ for as to how to format your post.
This is the answer box; if you want to write a comment instead, please use the 'add comment' button.
Live preview (may slow down editor)   Preview
Your name to display (optional):
Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.
Anti-spam verification:
If you are a human please identify the position of the character covered by the symbol $\varnothing$ in the following word:
p$\hbar$ysic$\varnothing$Overflow
Then drag the red bullet below over the corresponding character of our banner. When you drop it there, the bullet changes to green (on slow internet connections after a few seconds).
Please complete the anti-spam verification




user contributions licensed under cc by-sa 3.0 with attribution required

Your rights
...