If we use Fourier Transform, we can switch from the position representation to the momentum representation, like the following equation
ϕ(p)=1√2πℏ∫ψ(x)e−ipx/ℏdx
here comes the problem, if we use dirac notation we can see it is the inverse Fourier Transform we use to switch into the momentum representation
because of ⟨x|p⟩=1√2πℏeiℏpx,we can get |p⟩=|x⟩⟨x|p⟩=1√2πℏeiℏpx|x⟩=F−1|x⟩F−1=F−1|x⟩⟨x|=|p⟩⟨x|
This is used in one published paper. title:" A finite-dimensional quantum model for the stock market" author:Liviu-Adrian Cotfas, page 7, formula 32
also how can I get the following relation satisfied by the position and momentum operators ?
ˆp=F−1ˆxF
many thanks!