Quantcast
  • Register
PhysicsOverflow is a next-generation academic platform for physicists and astronomers, including a community peer review system and a postgraduate-level discussion forum analogous to MathOverflow.

Welcome to PhysicsOverflow! PhysicsOverflow is an open platform for community peer review and graduate-level Physics discussion.

Please help promote PhysicsOverflow ads elsewhere if you like it.

News

PO is now at the Physics Department of Bielefeld University!

New printer friendly PO pages!

Migration to Bielefeld University was successful!

Please vote for this year's PhysicsOverflow ads!

Please do help out in categorising submissions. Submit a paper to PhysicsOverflow!

... see more

Tools for paper authors

Submit paper
Claim Paper Authorship

Tools for SE users

Search User
Reclaim SE Account
Request Account Merger
Nativise imported posts
Claim post (deleted users)
Import SE post

Users whose questions have been imported from Physics Stack Exchange, Theoretical Physics Stack Exchange, or any other Stack Exchange site are kindly requested to reclaim their account and not to register as a new user.

Public \(\beta\) tools

Report a bug with a feature
Request a new functionality
404 page design
Send feedback

Attributions

(propose a free ad)

Site Statistics

205 submissions , 163 unreviewed
5,082 questions , 2,232 unanswered
5,353 answers , 22,789 comments
1,470 users with positive rep
820 active unimported users
More ...

  Vector field self-energy amplitude and imaginary part

+ 0 like - 0 dislike
1427 views

Suppose we have some diagram $M(p)$ of self-energy of massless vector field (i.e., indeed the gauge field). Let's compute its imaginary part. Let's assume that we obtain
$$\text{Im}M(p) = c \times p^{4}\theta(p^{2}), \quad \text{where c is finite}$$

What does this mean?

asked Jan 10, 2017 in Theoretical Physics by NAME_XXX (1,060 points) [ revision history ]
edited Jan 10, 2017 by NAME_XXX

Source of your formula?

@ArnoldNeumaier : I've found this result by computing the 6-th order self-energy diagram of the axial gauge field in the anomalous abelian gauge field theory. Precisely, its longitudinal part contains the imaginary part I'vr obtained. This result is connected with the anomaly, so I want to know what is the physical sense of it.

@ArnoldNeumaier : sorry, there is the mistake in the expression above. Instead of $M$ there must be $\text{Im}M$.

In general, an imaginary self-energy indicates (as in resonances) the inverse lifetime of an unstable state. One has it for example in the Lamb shift. I am not sure how to interpret it in a field theory.

@ArnoldNeumaier : indeed, this property stays in the quantum field theory due to optical theorem. However, this is connected to non-zero mass of decaying particle, while I don't understand whether the imaginary part above signals about the non-zero mass.

Your answer

Please use answers only to (at least partly) answer questions. To comment, discuss, or ask for clarification, leave a comment instead.
To mask links under text, please type your text, highlight it, and click the "link" button. You can then enter your link URL.
Please consult the FAQ for as to how to format your post.
This is the answer box; if you want to write a comment instead, please use the 'add comment' button.
Live preview (may slow down editor)   Preview
Your name to display (optional):
Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.
Anti-spam verification:
If you are a human please identify the position of the character covered by the symbol $\varnothing$ in the following word:
$\varnothing\hbar$ysicsOverflow
Then drag the red bullet below over the corresponding character of our banner. When you drop it there, the bullet changes to green (on slow internet connections after a few seconds).
Please complete the anti-spam verification




user contributions licensed under cc by-sa 3.0 with attribution required

Your rights
...