Consider a d (spatial) dimensional SPT phase with an on-site symmetry G, classified by some non-trivial cocycle ωd+1({gi})≠δμd({gi}), [ωd+1({gi})]∈Hd+1(G,U(1)), . In a recent paper, Wang, Wen and Witten construct gapped boundaries via a suitable group extension 1⟶Hi⟶Kr⟶G⟶1 such that the cocycle fro H defined via pullback is trivial r∗ωd+1({hi})=ωd+1({r(hi)})=δμd({hi}). The gapped boundary corresponds to an H invariant theory but with K gauged so that the global symmetry is H/K≅G as required. The following sentence they say however confuses me:
" By definition, two states in two different G-SPT phases cannot smoothly deform into each other via deformation paths that preserve the G-symmetry. However, two such G-SPT states may be able to smoothly deform into each other if we view them as systems with the extended H-symmetry and deform them along the paths that preserve the H-symmetry. "
To me, it sounds like the two sentences contradict each other.
Q1) If there is an H invariant deformation path to connect the system to a trivial state, then does that not automatically give us a G invariant deformation path?
Q2) Does sentence 2 somehow only apply to the boundary rather than the bulk?