Quantcast
  • Register
PhysicsOverflow is a next-generation academic platform for physicists and astronomers, including a community peer review system and a postgraduate-level discussion forum analogous to MathOverflow.

Welcome to PhysicsOverflow! PhysicsOverflow is an open platform for community peer review and graduate-level Physics discussion.

Please help promote PhysicsOverflow ads elsewhere if you like it.

News

PO is now at the Physics Department of Bielefeld University!

New printer friendly PO pages!

Migration to Bielefeld University was successful!

Please vote for this year's PhysicsOverflow ads!

Please do help out in categorising submissions. Submit a paper to PhysicsOverflow!

... see more

Tools for paper authors

Submit paper
Claim Paper Authorship

Tools for SE users

Search User
Reclaim SE Account
Request Account Merger
Nativise imported posts
Claim post (deleted users)
Import SE post

Users whose questions have been imported from Physics Stack Exchange, Theoretical Physics Stack Exchange, or any other Stack Exchange site are kindly requested to reclaim their account and not to register as a new user.

Public \(\beta\) tools

Report a bug with a feature
Request a new functionality
404 page design
Send feedback

Attributions

(propose a free ad)

Site Statistics

205 submissions , 163 unreviewed
5,082 questions , 2,232 unanswered
5,353 answers , 22,789 comments
1,470 users with positive rep
820 active unimported users
More ...

  Global $U(1)$ symmetry of 2+1d Abelian-Higgs Model

+ 0 like - 0 dislike
1728 views

In the Abelian-Higgs model, 

$$S=\int d^{3}x\left\{-\frac{1}{4g^{2}}F_{\mu\nu}F^{\mu\nu}+|D\phi|^{2}-a|\phi|^{2}-b|\phi|^{4}\right\}$$

there is a $U(1)$ gauge symmetry. In David Tongs' lecture notes 
http://www.damtp.cam.ac.uk/user/tong/qhe/qhe.pdf
on page 169, he says that there is also a less obvious global symmetry, with the current

$$\star j=\frac{1}{2\pi}db$$.

I understand that the current is conserved for an obvious reason. But why is the flux corresponding to a global $U(1)$ symmetry? What is this global $U(1)$ symmetry?

asked Mar 9, 2018 in Theoretical Physics by Libertarian Feudalist Bot (270 points) [ revision history ]
edited Mar 13, 2018 by Libertarian Feudalist Bot

1 Answer

+ 1 like - 0 dislike

If we go to the dual version, i.e. Wilson-Fisher without gauge field but just global symmetry, then U(1) symmetry simply corresponds to boson number conservation.

Now go back to Abelian-Higgs, you can ask what's the dual version of the previous global U(1) symmetry: you would then notice that the role of previous U(1) symmetry is played by the flux conservation now. This means your U(1) gauge field is non-compact, and monopoles operators are forbidden (at least in this simple duality of continuous theory).

Just remember here monopole operator is dual to previous boson operator, then other things are clear.

answered Mar 13, 2018 by Kite_T (10 points) [ revision history ]
edited Mar 13, 2018 by Kite_T

I think the topological current is conserved automatically by its definition. Noether current is conserved on-shell, but here it is conserved automatically.

Thank you. Could you explain what you mean by non-compact gauge field?

"Non-campact"... OK... Are you from high energy?

I am just a new student in theoretical physics. I know what compact means in topology but I don't know what non-compact gauge field is.

I see. You might find Page 8 and the footnote 4 helpful in this paper: arXiv 1703.02426.

I noticed you're trying to learn duality, Subir's notes always contains a lot of details. For example, the following one has a lattice version of boson-vertex duality:

https://canvas.harvard.edu/courses/39684/files/folder/Lectures?preview=5387008

which explains lots of details, and importantly, the origin of non-compactness in duality.

Thank you very much!!!

Note that the meaning of noncompact Kite is using is different from how high energy theorists use it and is different from the fact that $U(1)$ is compact. Whether you have monopoles in the theory or not has nothing to do with the fact that the gauge group is $U(1)$ or $R$. $U(1)$ vs. $R$ is the difference between having quantized electric charges or not. In theories with rotational symmetry (and therefore quantized angular momentum since SO(n) is compact), having a magnetic monopoles implies electric charge quantization, but that's the only relation.

Your answer

Please use answers only to (at least partly) answer questions. To comment, discuss, or ask for clarification, leave a comment instead.
To mask links under text, please type your text, highlight it, and click the "link" button. You can then enter your link URL.
Please consult the FAQ for as to how to format your post.
This is the answer box; if you want to write a comment instead, please use the 'add comment' button.
Live preview (may slow down editor)   Preview
Your name to display (optional):
Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.
Anti-spam verification:
If you are a human please identify the position of the character covered by the symbol $\varnothing$ in the following word:
p$\hbar$ys$\varnothing$csOverflow
Then drag the red bullet below over the corresponding character of our banner. When you drop it there, the bullet changes to green (on slow internet connections after a few seconds).
Please complete the anti-spam verification




user contributions licensed under cc by-sa 3.0 with attribution required

Your rights
...