Is it true that (ϕ†ϕ)2 is invariant under U(1)⊗SU(2) where ϕ is the Higgs field (1,2,1/2)?
Yes, clearly. The Higgs field ϕ is invariant under the transformation mentioned. To quote wikipedia:
In the standard model, the Higgs field is an SU(2) doublet, a complex spinor with four real components (or equivalently with two complex components). Its weak hypercharge (U(1) charge) is 1. That means that it transforms as a spinor under SU(2). Under U(1) rotations, it is multiplied by a phase, which thus mixes the real and imaginary parts of the complex spinor into each other—so this is ''not the same'' as two complex spinors mixing under U(1) (which would have eight real components between them), but instead is the spinor representation of the group U(2) .
And the conclusion follows.
Does this invariance imply that its hypercharge is invariant under U(1) and its spin is invariant under SU(2)? .
Yup, see the quote from wikipedia above-mentioned. Almost by' definition.
Make separate questions for the rest.
P.S. You may find this link useful for learning QFT. It is more of QCD, but it covers other things too.