The definition of gauge equivalence and notations used here is the same as those in my previous question.
As we know, the condition χ′ij=GiχijG†j(where Gi∈SU(2)) is a sufficient condition for the H and H′ being gauge equivalent, but is it also a necessary condition? If not, then what's the necessary and sufficient condition for gauge equivalence? Is my conjecture (1) correct?
Thanks in advance.
This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-03-09 08:39 (UCT), posted by SE-user K-boy