The definition of gauge equivalence and notations used here is the same as those in my previous question.
As we know, the condition $\chi_{ij}'=G_i\chi_{ij}G_j^\dagger$(where $G_i\in SU(2)$) is a sufficient condition for the $H$ and $H'$ being gauge equivalent, but is it also a necessary condition? If not, then what's the necessary and sufficient condition for gauge equivalence? Is my conjecture (1) correct?
Thanks in advance.
This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-03-09 08:39 (UCT), posted by SE-user K-boy