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  Generalized propagator

+ 3 like - 0 dislike
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I don't understand how to calculate this generalized two-point function or propagator, used in some advanced topics in quantum field theory, a normal ordered product (denoted between ::) is subtracted from the usual time ordered product (denoted T):

$\langle X^{\mu}(\sigma,\tau)X^{\nu}(\sigma',\tau')\rangle ~=~ T ( X^{\mu}(\sigma,\tau)X^{\nu}(\sigma',\tau')) ~-~ : X^{\mu}(\sigma,\tau)X^{\nu}(\sigma',\tau'):$

My question is can the rhs of this propagator be derived or the meaning of the subtraction of the time ordered product explained and motivated in simple words?

asked Dec 9, 2011 in Theoretical Physics by Dilaton (6,240 points) [ revision history ]
Dear @Qmechanic thanks for improving my question (I am not a native English speaker and have to find out how LaTex works on this site too...). It looks better now :-)

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-03-17 03:36 (UCT), posted by SE-user Dilaton

1 Answer

+ 4 like - 0 dislike

If the operators $X_i$ can be written as a sum of an annihilation and a creation part

$$X_i~=~A_i + A_i^\dagger, \qquad A_i|0\rangle~=~0,$$

where

$$ [A_i(t),A_j(t^\prime)] ~=~ 0, $$

and

$$ [A_i(t),A_j^\dagger(t^\prime)] ~=~ (c~{\rm numbers}) \times {\bf 1}, $$

i.e. proportional to the identity operator ${\bf 1}$, then one may prove that

$$ T(X_i(t)X_j(t^\prime)) ~-~:X_i(t)X_j(t^\prime): ~=~\langle 0 | T(X_i(t)X_j(t^\prime))|0\rangle ~{\bf 1}. \qquad (1) $$

Proof: The time ordering is defined as

$$ T(X_i(t)X_j(t^\prime)) ~=~ \Theta(t-t^\prime) X_i(t)X_j(t^\prime) +\Theta(t^\prime-t) X_j(t^\prime)X_i(t)$$ $$~=~X_i(t)X_j(t^\prime) -\Theta(t^\prime-t) [X_i(t),X_j(t^\prime)]$$ $$~=~X_i(t)X_j(t^\prime) -\Theta(t^\prime-t) \left([A_i(t),A_j^\dagger(t^\prime)]+[A_i^\dagger(t),A_j(t^\prime)]\right). \qquad (2)$$

The normal ordering moves the creation part to the left of the annihilation part, so

$$:X_i(t)X_j(t^\prime):~=~ X_i(t)X_j(t^\prime) - [A_i(t),A_j^\dagger(t^\prime)].\qquad (3)$$

The difference of eqs. (2) and (3) is the lhs. of eq. (1) :

$$ T(X_i(t)X_j(t^\prime)) ~-~:X_i(t)X_j(t^\prime): $$ $$~=~ \Theta(t-t^\prime)[A_i(t),A_j^\dagger(t^\prime)] + \Theta(t^\prime-t)[A_j(t^\prime),A_i^\dagger(t)],\qquad (4)$$

which is proportional to the identity operator ${\bf 1}$ by assumption. Now sandwich eq. (4) between the bra $\langle 0 |$ and the ket $|0\rangle $. Since the rhs. is proportional to the identity operator ${\bf 1}$, the unsandwiched rhs. must be equal to the sandwiched rhs. times the identity operator ${\bf 1}$. Hence also the unsandwiched lhs. must be equal to the sandwiched lhs. times the identity operator ${\bf 1}$. This yields eq. (1).

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-03-17 03:36 (UCT), posted by SE-user Qmechanic
answered Dec 10, 2011 by Qmechanic (3,120 points) [ no revision ]
How do you get away without sandwiching on the left side of (4)? I would expect $\langle 0|T(X_i(t)X_j(t^\prime))|0\rangle ~-~\langle 0|:X_i(t)X_j(t^\prime):|0\rangle~=~\langle 0 | T(X_i(t)X_j(t^\prime))|0\rangle$ (which of course is a consequence of $\langle 0|:XX:|0\rangle = 0$).

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-03-17 03:36 (UCT), posted by SE-user David Z
all this sandwiching made me hungry

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-03-17 03:36 (UCT), posted by SE-user lurscher
Oh, I see now, so $\langle 0|T(XX)|0\rangle$ is implicitly multiplied by the identity operator. (right?) Should've noticed that in the first place... thanks for clarifying!

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-03-17 03:36 (UCT), posted by SE-user David Z
Yes, I updated the answer with an explicit identity operator.

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-03-17 03:36 (UCT), posted by SE-user Qmechanic
Thanks a lot @Qmechanic, this clear proof is exactly what I needed. The only thing left to do for me now is to check that the preconditions are valid in my specific case.

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-03-17 03:36 (UCT), posted by SE-user Dilaton

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