I have questions in the section 19.1 of Peskin and Schroeder.
ψ=(ψ+ψ−)
The subscripts indicates the γ5 eigenvalue.
Below we'll show that there is situtions where the axial current conservation law ∂μjμ5=0.
is violated, and the integrated version of
∂μjμ5=e2πϵμνFμν
holds. where the totally antisymmetric symbol
ϵμν is defined as
ϵ01=+1 on page 653.
Let us analyze this problem by thinking about fermions in one space dimension in a background A1 field that is constant in space and has a very slow time dependence. We will assume that the system has a finite length L, with the periodic boundary conditions.
So A1(t,0)=A1(t,L), and also ψ(t,0)=ψ(t,L).
the single-particle eigen-states of H have energies ψ+:En=+(kn−eA1),ψ+:En=−(kn−eA1).
Now we consider the slow shift of A1.
If A1 changes by the finite amount
ΔA1=2πeL(19.37)
Where ΔA1>0.
the spectrum of H returns to its original form. In this process, each level of ψ+ moves down to the next poston, and each level of ψ− moves up to the next position, The occupation numbers of levels should be maintained in this adiabatic process. Thus, remarkably, one right-moving fermion(ψ+) disappears from the vacuum and one extra left-moving fermion(ψ−) appears.
So ΔNR=−1,ΔNL=1
.
At the same time, ∫d2xe2πϵμνFμν=∫dtdxeπ∂0A1=eπL(−ΔA1)=−2
where I've rectified a misprint on the LHS of the first line.
where we have inserted (19.37) in the last line. Thus the integrated form of the anomalous nonconservation equation (19.18) is indeed satisfied: ΔNR−ΔNL=∫d2xe2πϵμνFμν.
For ΔNR−ΔNL=−2.
From ∫d2x∂μjμ5=ΔNR−ΔNL
we obtain
∫d2x∂μjμ5=∫d2xe2πϵμνFμν.
Question 1:
I've checked all the calculations leading to (19.38). But I cannot understand the minus sign in the second anf the third line of (19.38).
Where does it come from?
Question 2:
In computing the changes in the separate fermion numbers, we have assumed that the vacuum cannot change the charge at large negative energies. This prescription is gauge invariant, but it leads to the nonconservation of the axial vector current.
It follws that if the vacuum changed the charge at large negative energies, this prescription would not be gauge invariant.
How come? Please would you explain?
This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2017-02-13 08:16 (UTC), posted by SE-user GotchaP