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  Why aren't the spin-3/2 fields in the (3/2,0)+(0,3/2) representation?

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Why is it that spin-32 fields are usually described to be in the (12,12)[(12,0)(0,12)] representation (Rarita-Schwinger) rather than the (32,0)(0,32) representation? Does the latter not describe a spin-32 field? Why is the gravitino given by the Rarita-Schwinger-type representation rather than the (32,0)(0,32) representation?

This is related to a recent question I asked on gauge invariance of the Rarita-Schwinger field.

Thanks!

This post has been migrated from (A51.SE)
asked Mar 21, 2012 in Theoretical Physics by Henry (115 points) [ no revision ]

2 Answers

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You could have asked the same question about a spin one field. Why do they transform in the (12,12) representation and not in (1,0)(0,1)? The reason is gauge invariance; the gauge fields Aμ transform in (12,12), but the gauge invariant field strength Fμν transforms in (1,0)(0,1).

The same holds for the gavitino. The Rarita-Schwinger field ψμα is like the gauge field Aμ. It has a gauge transformation δψμα=μχα. Its gauge invariant field strength μψνανψμα transforms as (32,0)(0,32).

This post has been migrated from (A51.SE)
answered Mar 21, 2012 by Sidious Lord (160 points) [ no revision ]
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Note that the field ψμα isn't all of the representation (12,12)[(12,0)(0,12)] but only the part of it satisfying γμψμα. This selects the (1,12)(12,1) representation. See Weinberg's QFT Sect. 5.6 for more on this.

We can expand on Sidious Lord's answer. The field Aμ transforms in a inhomogeneous way under Lorentz transformations. U(Λ)Aμ(x)U(Λ)=ΛμνAν(x)+μΩ(x,Λ).

So, this field isn't technically a 4-vector representation of the Lorentz group. Weinberg treats this in section 5.9. The inhomogenous part cancels out of the field strength.

This post has been migrated from (A51.SE)
answered Mar 21, 2012 by josh (205 points) [ no revision ]

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