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  Deriving Callan-Gross from Parton Model

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I want to derive the Callan-Gross relation from the parton model, not from the Rosenbluth and Mott cross sections, but I am having some problems obtaining the textbook result. I am following *M.D. Schwartz: Quantum Field Theory and the Standard Model* (pp.672, 675, 678).

Starting from the hard scattering coefficient obtained from the partonic scattering amplitude for γqiqi (eq. 32.32),
ˆWμν(z,Q2)=2πQ2iδ(1z)[Aμν+4zQ2Bμν],


where Aμν:=gμν+qμqνQ2, Bμν:=(pμ+pqQ2qμ)(pν+pqQ2qν), and the convolution formula for the hardonic tensor Wμν(x,Q2) obtained from factorisation, we arrive at
Wμν(x,Q2)=2π1xdξξifi(ξ)Q2iδ(1xξ)[Aμν+4xQ2ξBμν]=2π1xdξifi(ξ)Q2iδ(ξx)[Aμν+4xQ2ξBμν]=2πifi(x)Q2i[Aμν+4Q2Bμν],

such that W1(x,Q2)=2πifi(x)Q2i=Q24W2(x,Q2).

Now, the textbook says that the result should be W1(x,Q2)=Q24x2W2(x,Q2) (eq. 32.23, 32.24). Did I make a mistake somewhere in my calculations?

asked Feb 3, 2020 in Theoretical Physics by twening (70 points) [ no revision ]
recategorized Feb 4, 2020 by Dilaton

The integration is done correctly. Make in the integral the substitution ξ=x/u to replace the integration variable ξ by u, and dξ/ξ by du/u, reverse the integration bounds to get rid of the minus sign (since u<1) and you'll get the same expression. Thus the problem must lie elsewhere.

What happens to the converted z from line 2 to line 3?
Why to you use Q² among W arguments ? Similarily, for the missing square of Q²/4z ( instead of Q²/4z² ), it depends on notations.and arguments of W(), since the proportionality is sufficient to conclude on a -1/2 spin.

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